Exam Code : ee0-501
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-501
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam

1. When a Virtual Server is created, which VLANs are enabled for the Virtual Server by default?
A. all existing VLANs
B. the internal VLAN only
C. the external VLAN only
D. the VLAN used by the default route only
E. None are associated by default. All assignments are explicit.
Answer: A

2. Which of the following parameters can be specified with the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A. current time
B. password of the "root" user
C. IP address of an initial Virtual Server
D. IP address restrictions for access to the Configuration Utility
E. self IP addresses
Answer: BDE

3. 245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C
5. When administrative users are created, which three access levels can they be granted through the BIG-IP Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. Web Read Only
C. CLI + Web Read Only
D. CLI + Full Web Read / Write
E. CLI + Partial Web Read / Write
Answer: ABD

4. 245.245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

5. 1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

6. Which IP address does the BIG-IP assign itself by default at startup, before the BIG-IP has been configured
A. 10.10.1.245 or 192.168.245.245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

7. You are using the Setup Utility. Which two statements about the DNS Proxy section are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server is entered here.
B. If the option is chosen, it allows the BIG-IP System to resolve host names for nodes.
C. If the option is chosen, the hostname of an available DNS server must be entered here.
D. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server on the same subnet must be entered here.
Answer: AB

8. Which three methods are available for authentication of administrative users logging on to BIG-IP’s web-based Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Local LDAP database
B. Local Radius database
C. Remote LDAP database
D. Remote Radius database
E. Local master.passwd database
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code : EE0-076
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 231 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 231 Q&As
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Exam Code : ee0-505
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As
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Exam : Exam Express EE0-505
Title : F5 Fire Pass V5

1. 0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B
2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD
3. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE
4. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE
5. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD
6. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.
Answer: CD
7. Which three statements are true about FirePass Administrators? (Choose three.)
A.Administrator logons can be authenticated externally to FirePass.
B.All FirePass Administrators can access the FirePass user webtop.
C.Other FirePass users setup as Administrators can change the SuperUser password.
D.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can change any FirePass users password.
E.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can only change FirePass internally authenticated users’ passwords.
Answer: ABE

2. 1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD
6. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.
Answer: CD
7. Which three statements are true about FirePass Administrators? (Choose three.)
A.Administrator logons can be authenticated externally to FirePass.
B.All FirePass Administrators can access the FirePass user webtop.
C.Other FirePass users setup as Administrators can change the SuperUser password.
D.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can change any FirePass users password.
E.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can only change FirePass internally authenticated users’ passwords.
Answer: ABE

3. 94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B
2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD
3. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE
4. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE

4. 10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B
2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD

5. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE

6. 34.94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B
2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD
3. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE
4. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE
5. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD
6. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.
Answer: CD

7. 229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B
2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD
3. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE
4. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE
5. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD

8. What Answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?
NAPT – disabled,
Client machine IP Address – 216.34.94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B

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Exam Code : ee0-011
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 87 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 87 Q&As
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Exam : Exam Express EE0-011
Title : ATG Certified Relationship Management Developer

1. In which file is an application module’s required classes specified?
A. the META.INF file
B. the module’s .jar file
C. the application.xml file
D. the MANIFEST.MF file
E. the J2EEContainer.properties file
Answer: D

2. Click the Exhibit button.
File1.jsp is changed to replace the include directive with the dsp:include tag. Which two other changes should you make so that the behavior of the application remains the same? (Choose two.)
A. rename file2.jspf to file2.jsp
B. add a taglib directive to file2
C. add a dsp:importbean tag to file2
D. add a dsp:param tag to file1.jsp within the body of the dsp:include tag
Answer: BC

3. Which cache mode is most appropriate for repositories that are generally read-only, but updated infrequently?
A. locked
B. simple
C. disabled
D. distributed
Answer: D

4. The type of a repository item property is defined using component-item-type only if the item’s data-type is a collection and _____.
A. its elements are Java primitive types
B. a one-to-many mapping is being described
C. its elements are references to components
D. its elements are references to other repository items
Answer: D

5. Which two statements are true if a repository item type T has a property P that has the cascade="update" attribute set? (Choose two.)
A. Property P can be defined as either a repository item or a Collection of repository items.
B. The cascade="update" attribute is applied recursively to any properties in the items referenced by property P.
C. Anytime that a repository item of type T is updated, all corresponding items referenced by property P are updated.
D. Anytime that a repository item of type T is added to the repository, the corresponding items referenced by property P are also added to the repository.
Answer: AD

6. Why should you use serviceLocalParameter() instead of serviceParameter()?
A. to loop parameters
B. to limit the scope of parameters
C. to provide region-specific services
D. to service internationalized content
Answer: B

7. What are two advantages of using Item Descriptor Inheritance over independent item descriptors in a repository definition? (Choose two.)
A. Duplicate data across different tables can be avoided.
B. The number of database tables is reduced, simplifying queries.
C. Item descriptors can inherit properties from multiple parent sources.
D. Queries for items with common attributes can be created more easily.
Answer: AD

8. An online application requires that the value of a user’s security privilege be inherited from the privilege of its parent organization unless a value is specified on a per-user basis. Which repository feature provides the quickest and easiest implementation?
A. RQL filter
B. derived property
C. custom property descriptor
D. item-descriptor inheritance
Answer: B

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Exam Code : EE0-602
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 113 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 113 Q&As
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Exam : Exam Express EE0-602
Title : Exam Express(r) MAXIMO 6 Certified EAM Consultant Exam

1. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class
B.Value List
C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE

2. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE

3. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
Answer: B

4. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D

5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
Answer: B

6. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier
C.2-tier
D.client/server
Answer: A

7. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task.
C.Set the Alert Lead on the PM.
D.Configure the PM Alert Option.
E.Create an Alert Lead field on the PM.
Answer: CD

8. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D

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Exam Code : EE0-411
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As
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Exam : Exam Express EE0-411
Title : VoiceXML Application Developer Exam

1. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

2. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the<prompt> element, using the rate attribute
B. the <prosody>element, using the rate attribute
C. the <say-as> element, using the duration attribute
D. the<emphasis> element, using the duration attribute
Answer: B

3. The _____ attribute is used to identify the root document of a VoiceXML application.
A. root
B. main
C. parent
D. application
Answer: D

4. Given the following code fragment:
<field name="day_of_month" type="number>
<prompt>What day of the month?</prompt>
[ _________ ]
</field>
Which code fragment should be inserted in the blank to ensure that the day_of_month is less than or equal to 31 and, if it is not, then require the user to reenter it .
A. picture
8. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D
9. Which attribute of the break element can be used to specify a pause in VoiceXML 2.0?
A. time
B. pause
C. msecs
D. sleep
Answer: A

5. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D

6. Which grammar rule recognizes these phrases?
Isaac Levi
Isaac the kid Levi
Isaac my friend Levi
Isaac Delbert Levi
Mao Yonghang
Mao the kid Yonghang
Mao my friend Yonghang
Mao Delbert Yonghang
A. picture
6. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

7. Which two code fragments write " rose " to a log? (Choose two.)
A. <log>rose</log>
B. <log name="rose">rose</log>
C. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="rose"/></log>
D. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="var1"/></log>
Answer: AD

8. Given the following VoiceXML code:
The objective of this code is to ask callers to enter their PIN. Which line must be changed for this code to achieve its objective?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15
Answer: B

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Exam Code : ee0-400
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 148 Q&As

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Exam Code : ee0-065
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 189 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-065
Title : Interwoven TeamSite 6.5 Technical Consultant

1. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
Answer: D

2. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets that were on the Web server before the attack.
To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
Answer: B

3. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B

4. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
Answer: B

5. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
Answer: E

6. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

7. On a Windows 2000 Server, no matter what you do, the "everyone" account always has full control access to all TeamSite content. It is being automatically applied to all new content and areas, and you are unable to remove it. Which one of the following conditions causes the above situation?
A. The TSIMP_hostname account is missing from the TeamSite Web Preview group.
B. There is no webserver_group declared in iw.cfg.
C. The iwserver service is running in debug mode.
D. There is no group named TeamSite Web Preview defined on the TeamSite server.
E. There is no webpreview_group declared in iw.cfg.
Answer: B

8. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D

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Exam Code : ee0-512
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 48 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-512
Title : Exam Express(r) F5-big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management Advanced

1. A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
B.BIG-IP must know which functions the program is going to test.
C.BIG-IP must know the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested.
D.BIG-IP must know which node or member the results are to be applied to.
E.BIG-IP must know all services that are running on the system to be tested.
Answer: AD

2. If a self-IP’s port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed communication to that address?
A.Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B.Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C.Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D.The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

3. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the network in the exhibit and the following partial configuration. If a packet arrived on the BIG-IP with a source IP address of 200.10.10.10 and a destination IP address of 150.10.10.75, what would the source IP address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the chosen member of the web_pool?
A.10.10.1.100
B.150.10.10.15
C.200.10.10.10
D.It would be one of the three IP addresses in the web_pool.
E.It would be the floating self-IP address on the internal VLAN of the BIG-IP.
F.There is insufficient information to determine what the source address would be.
Answer: A

4. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems.
C.The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system.
D.When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

5. If a self-IP port lockdown is set to "allow default", which three ports will accept administrative traffic? (Choose three.)
A.SSH
B.DNS
C.HTTP
D.SMTP
E.HTTPS
Answer: ABE

6. A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 that is associated with a load-balancing pool with a single pool member: 10.10.10.1:80. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for all addresses. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what are the source and destination addresses when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 10.10.10.1
B.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 10.10.10.1
C.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 150.150.10.10
D.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 150.150.10.10
Answer: B

7. Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B.Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C.The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes traffic last.
Answer: A

8. Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A./etc/hosts.deny
B./etc/sshd_allow
C./etc/hosts.allow
D./etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

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Exam Code : ee0-511
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 92 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-511
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management

1. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A.Neither the pool nor it’s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Answer: B

2. When initially configuring the BIG-IP System using the config tool, which three parameters can be set? (Choose three.)
A.the netmask of the management port
B.the host name of the management port
C.the IP address of the management port
D.the default route for the management port
E.the port lockdown of the management port
Answer: ACD

3. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.WWW
E.source address persistence
Answer: AC

4. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.
Answer: DE

5. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Answer: BD

6. What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP’s management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Answer: B

7. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Answer: B

8. Which two F5 switch platforms always have both a compact flash and a hard drive? (Choose two.)
A.1000
B.1500
C.2400
D.3400
E.5100
F.6400
Answer: DF

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Exam Code : ee0-021
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-02
Title : Atg commerce certification exam

1. What should you do to prevent errors during submission in the checkout caused by session invalidation?
A. You set the sessionExpirationURL property of the form handler to redirect the user to an appropriate page after submission.
B. You ensure that the Profile.securityStatus is not anonymous before rendering the form and if it is anonymous, redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
C. You create a servlet that will check the SessionManager.validSessions property and ensure this session is valid when the form is
displayed. If session is invalid, you redirect the user to an appropriate page.
D. You check the creationTime of the user’s session and ensure that the difference subtracted from current time is not greater than the
SessionManager.sessionInvalidationTime on the page. If it is longer than the sessionInvalidationTime, you redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
Answer: A

2. What are two functions of the CartModifierFormHandler? (Choose two.)
A. reprices the Order
B. adds items to an Order
C. schedules the Order for future fulfillment
D. retrieves the list of payment groups associated with the Order
Answer: AB

3. When would you use the CatalogItemLookupDroplet instead of the ItemLookupDroplet to look up items in a catalog repository?
A. when you want to search for an item on a gift list
B. when you want to search more than one repository for an item
C. when you want to search for an item only from the current user’s catalog
D. when you want to search for a list of possible items that match a specific criteria
Answer: C

4. Which two steps are necessary to add a new shipping method? (Choose two.)
A. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.ShippingMethod
B. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.FixedPriceShippingCalculator
C. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s preCalculator property
D. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s shippingMethod property
Answer: BC

5. Which two statements about the functions of the ShippingGroupFormHandler are true? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to split shipping by line item.
B. It allows you to split shipping by payment group.
C. It contains a list of CommerceItemShippingInfo objects.
D. It loads the ShippingGroupMapContainer with the authorized shipping groups for the current user.
Answer: AC

6. What are three main tasks in the PaymentGroupFormHandler? (Choose three.)
A. create a new PaymentGroup for use in a user’s current Order
B. split extra CommerceIdentifierPaymentInfo objects by amount
C. handle applying CommerceIdentifierPaymentInfo associations to the current Order
D. specify a default PaymentGroup to be used for a CommerceIdentifier that is not explicitly assigned to a PaymentGroup
Answer: BCD

7. What are two ways to display items in an order in a JSP? (Choose two.)
A. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.productIds property
B. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.commerceItems property
C. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItems property
D. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItemRelationships property
Answer: BD

8. In which two cases is it recommended that you create repository item sub-types or modify the sku repository item rather than use dynamicAttributes? (Choose two.)
A. when adding multiple attributes to a sku
B. when using an attribute represented by a number
C. when defining an attribute that can be different for all SKUs
D. when defining an attribute that is specific to a small subset of SKUs
Answer: AD

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Exam Code : ee0-506
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 150 Q&As

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Exam Code : ee1-001
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 130 Q&As

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Exam Code : ee0-503
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 40 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-503
Title : F5 3-DNS V4 Exam

1. What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?
A. Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.
B. Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.
C. Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.
D. Secondary servers act as back-ups and will respond only if the primary fails.
Answer: B

2. A 3-DNS System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domain for which the 3-DNS System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?
A. 3-DNS System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.
B. It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the 3-DNS System.
C. It comes from the database of previously cached name resolutions.
D. It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received.
Answer: B

3. A specific ECV can be used to test _____.
A. a Virtual Server within a pool
B. all Virtual Servers in a single pool
C. all Virtual Servers in all pools in a Wide-IP
D. all Virtual Servers in all pools of a group of Wide-IPs
Answer: C

4. What might happen if the big3d agent becomes overloaded due to a large number of local DNSs making resolution requests?
A. The TTL setting for the Wide-IP increases.
B. Some probe statistics may fail to be updated.
C. Address responses to local DNSs are delayed until the big3d agent recovers.
D. The 3-DNS System will not respond to DNS queries until the big3d agent recovers.
Answer: B

5. A Wide-IP has two pools. The first has a set of five Virtual Servers. The second pool redirects requests to a Content Delivery Network (CDN). How can limits and thresholds be used to manage traffic for this Wide-IP? (Choose two.)
A. If requests exceed the first pool’s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the CDN.
B. If requests exceed the second pool’s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the Virtual Servers in the first pool.
C. If requests exceed the Wide-IP’s threshold, additional requests can be ignored to prevent overloading the Virtual Servers.
D. If requests exceed the second pool’s threshold, additional requests can be load balanced between the Virtual Servers and the CDN.
Answer: AB

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Exam Code : EE0-513
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 49 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-513
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x

1. If the config tool is complete, which three access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration on 520/540 platforms? (Choose three.)
A.network access via http
B.network access via https
C.network access via telnet
D.direct access via serial port
E.direct access via keyboard and monitor
Answer: BDE

2. When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)
A.System hostname
B.IP Address of management port
C.IP Address of the external VLAN
D.Default route for management port
E.Port lockdown of management port
Answer: BD

3. Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other BIG-IP Systems? (Choose two.)
A.22
B.53
C.443
D.4353
E.4354
Answer: AD

4. Which three parameters can be specified within the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A.password of the "root" user
B.IP address of an NTP server
C.IP address of an initial Wide-IP
D.IP address restrictions for ssh access
E.all necessary administrative IP addresses (including floating addresses)
Answer: ADE

5. Which two daemons only run once the entire license process has been completed? (Choose two.)
A.zrd
B.tmm
C.ntpd
D.gtmd
Answer: AD

6. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A.the system’s dossier
B.the system’s base license
C.the system’s serial number
D.the system’s purchase order number
Answer: A

7. When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.Root
B.Guest
C.Operator
D.Administrator
E.CLI + Web Read Only
Answer: BCD

8. After licensing the GTM System, what must be performed to complete activation?
A.reboot of system
B.manual restart of gtmd
C.manual restart of tmm
D.enter the command bigstart restart
Answer: A

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Exam Code : EE0-515
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As
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Exam : Exam Express EE0-515
Title : FirePass v6

1. Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other checks can restrict access to the logon screen
Answer: A

2. Which statement is true for users in a group when the "Show administrator-defined favorites only" option is enabled?
A. They cannot configure their own user favorites.
B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient privileges.
C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as FirePass.
D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the web-site address.
Answer: A

3. Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.) 1.restart First (Primary) 2.restart Second (Secondary) 3.enable Failover option on First 4.enable Failover option on Second 5.configure virtual IP Address on First 6. configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: C D

4. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script.
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance" script.
Answer: B

5. Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers?
A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent.
B. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.
D. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
Answer: C

6. If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?
A. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
B. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
C. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
D. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
Answer: B

7. Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL’s can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL’s can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL’s require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL’s.
Answer: A

8. Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
B. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
C. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
D. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
E. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
F. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
Answer: A C

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Exam Code : ee0-201
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 132 Q&As

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Exam Code : ee0-050
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 148 Q&As

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Exam Code : ee0-301
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 138 Q&As

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Exam Code : EE0-426
Exam Name : Exam Express Certification
Questions and Answers : 79 Q&As

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-426
Title : Packeteer Certified Specialist

1. What is the purpose of configuring direct standby?
A. to configure PacketShapers in one-armed mode
B. to monitor a connected router’s WAN interface(s)
C. to configure PacketShapers in a redundant topology
D. to configure PacketShapers to participate in routing decisions
Answer: C

2. What best describes the capabilities available as part of the Packeteer unit high availability feature? (Choose TWO)
A. traffic discovery
B. automatic data back-up
C. non-inline traffic monitoring
D. automatic link capacity adjustment
E. insertion in redundant network topologies
Answer: DE

3. What criteria can be specified in a matching rule? (Choose THREE)
A. SSL URL
B. Set shaping Off
C. Diffserv marking
D. Set discovery On
E. VLAN identification
F. Application-specific criteria
Answer: CEF

4. What best defines the functionality of Link State Mirroring?
A. PacketShaper will bring down the second port of a NIC pair if the first goes down.
B. PacketShaper mirrors data from an active interface set to a selected port to allow an external analyzer to be connected to take a packet trace.
C. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the hot standby partner.
D. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the direct standby partner.
Answer: A

5. Why would the Failover feature in Setup be configured?
A. to detect if a Frame Relay PVC has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
B. to detect if a site router’s primary link has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
C. to detect if a site router has failed and to configure a new site router IP address and link speed
D. to detect if a WAN router has become unavailable and to djust the total link speed as appropriate
Answer: B

6. Using the exhibit provided, what PacketShaper feature can be enabled to ensure an Ethernet switch that forms a branch office LAN is able to detect if the router fails?
A. Failover
B. Bypass mode
C. Link-State Mirroring
D. Bridge Pass-through
Answer: C

7. What type of control features can be configured for folders?
A. Policies
B. Partitions
C. Policy Inheritance
D. Traffic Discovery within Class
Answer: B

8. What can a policy be applied to?
A. folder classes
B. class with children
C. class with no children
D. any class on the class tree
Answer: C

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