Exam Code : HH0-240
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 173 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 173 Q&As
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Exam Code : HH0-440
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-440
Title : Storage Architect – Performance & Virtualization

1. Which three key metrics are needed for sizing industry standard applications? (Choose three.)
A.IO read/write ratios
B.port speed
C.IO rates and data transfer rates
D.cache read hit ratios
E.number of ACP/BED pairs
Answer: ACD

2. Solaris IOSTAT shows that response times are degrading for a number of LUNs and that these LUNs are 100% busy. The active queue values are in a range up to, but not exceeding 8, and the wait queue values are in the range from 0 to 5 when the active queue is 7 or 8.
Which condition is implied by these values?
A.These are normal values for busy LUNs with a LUN queue depth of 8.
B.There are no more Tags available on this storage port due to heavy IO load.
C.There are no more Tags available for these LUNs at the port due to heavy IO load.
D.The HBA LUN queue depth is set incorrectly.
Answer: A

3.
Which condition is implied by these values?
A.These are normal values for busy LUNs with a LUN queue depth of 8.
B.There are no more Tags available on this storage port due to heavy IO load.
C.There are no more Tags available for these LUNs at the port due to heavy IO load.
D.The HBA LUN queue depth is set incorrectly.
Answer: A
6. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A.insufficient cache
B.loss of redundancy in write cache
C.heavy random writes to RAID5
D.heavy random writes to SATA drives
E.failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE
7. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing.
Which two actions should be considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A.Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B.Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C.Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D.Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: AB
8. Which three parameters will help to calculate a server’s maximum LUN queue depth to avoid the risk of SCSI timeouts? (Choose three.)
A.The number of active LUNs mapped to a storage port.
B.The number of active servers in the cluster accessing the active LUNs.
C.The number of command tags supported by the storage port.
D.The number of disk drives supporting the LUN configuration.
E.The total number of LUNs mapped to the storage port.
Answer: ABC

4. In the Universal Storage Platform (USP) family, what is the maximum number of external ports that one external LDEV can be attached to?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: C

5. Which three statements are true for Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose three.)
A.HGLAM manages multiple instances of Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM).
B.HGLAM assigns load balancing algorithms only at the server level.
C.HGLAM can alert which server is impacted when a fabric switch goes down.
D.HGLAM reports IO rate at the HBA level.
E.HGLAM can report a USP cache failure.
Answer: ACD

6. Which level of Write Pending is normal for a busy OLTP Universal Storage Platform (USP) system adequately managing the destaging of writes?
A.0% to 20%
B.20% to 30%
C.30% to 40%
D.40% to 50%
Answer: B

7. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing.
Which two actions should be considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A.Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B.Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C.Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D.Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: AB

8. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A.insufficient cache
B.loss of redundancy in write cache
C.heavy random writes to RAID5
D.heavy random writes to SATA drives
E.failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

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Exam Code : HH0-220
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-220
Title : HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular

1. You want to manage an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500 with Storage Navigator Modular (SNM), but you want to be sure that no one else has access to make changes at the same time.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A.Install SNM for Web on only one host and give access to this host for storage administrators.
B.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts and install the Password Protection key.
C.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts but connect to the AMS500 in maintenance mode.
D.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts, and on the SNM restrict changes to the first logon user.
Answer: AB

2. Hitachi Data Systems Sales and Services representatives are involved in preparing for the delivery of storage systems at a customer site.
Which three areas will these representatives be asked to look at when following the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) process? (Choose three.)
A.equipment delivery date
B.customer contact details
C.equipment configuration details
D.equipment and feature availability
E.site access details for equipment delivery
Answer: BCE

3. HiCommand Device Manager can be used to link Universal Volume Manager to manage the Hitachi TagmaStore Universal Storage Platform (USP).
Which three steps must first be performed? (Choose three.)
A.Specify an external volume in the external subsystem.
B.Stop the Common Component and the Device Manager Server.
C.Verify whether DAMP (for Web) runs on the Common Component.
D.Use Device Manager to map and manage the internal and external subsystems.
E.Specify an external subsystem port to be connected to the external port, which will be managed as a specific host for external volumes in the external subsystem.
Answer: ADE

4. There exist Two Command Devices exist on an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500. ShadowImage has been running for some time. For maintenance reasons, the AMS500 must be restarted. After restarting, only one Command Device is still available.
How will the horcm instances behave in this situation?
A.HORCM will be able to start with a warning message to the startup log.
B.HORCM will not start unless the second Command Device is available again.
C.HORCM will connect to Storage Navigator Modular and define a second Command Device.
D.HORCM will start but go into a wait status until the second Command Device is back again.
Answer: A

5. 0.17.
D.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.16 or 192.168.0.16.
Answer: D
8. To which LAN should the Hitachi TagmaStore AMS200 controllers be attached?
A.the user’s intranet
B.the AMS200 internal LAN
C.the secure management LAN
D.the Storage Navigator Modular
Answer: C

6. You connect the user LAN ports to an Ethernet switch while installing an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500 and are unable to communicate although the link LED is illuminated. You are not sure if the user LAN IP addresses are correct.
How can you reset the IP addresses to known values?
A.Connect using a null modem cable to the RS232 port and change the user LAN IP addresses.
B.Press the reset button on the controller three times to reset the IP addresses to factory settings.
C.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.17 or 192.168.0.17.
D.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.16 or 192.168.0.16.
Answer: D

7. An Authorized Service Provider (ASP) partner has downloaded the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) from the Hitachi Data Systems PartnerXchange Web site to prepare for the installation of an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS200.
Which document is relevant for the partner to use as part of the SARD process?
A.the SARD Excel worksheet
B.the Warranty Accreditation form
C.the Service Acceptance Agreement form
D.the AMS200 System Assurance Document
Answer: A

8. What is the purpose of the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) process?
A.To ensure accurate and complete record of pre-installation data.
B.To guarantee that Hitachi Data Systems equipment is insured during transportation.
C.To inform a channel partner that equipment is available for shipment.
D.To validate configuration changes for customers with a premium service contract.
Answer: A

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Exam Code : HH0-005
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 40 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 40 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-005
Title : TagmaStore AMS and WMS-Installation and Configration

1. Which three restrictions related to the controller front-end architecture apply to the WMS100 and AMS200 series? (Choose three.)
A.The transfer rate for both mini-hub connectors must be set to the same speed.
B.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected to the same Fabric.
C.The microcode disables the second mini-hub connector in case of Fabric connection.
D.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected through a Fabric to different hosts.
E.The LUN management functions must be used to share the original port by 2 hosts through the same mini-hub.
Answer: ACE

2. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C

3.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
3. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C
4. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D
5. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0.
Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
Answer: ADE

4. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D

5.
Answer: B

6.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD

7.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
3. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C
4. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D
5. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0.
Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
Answer: ADE
6. Which three restrictions related to the controller front-end architecture apply to the WMS100 and AMS200 series? (Choose three.)
A.The transfer rate for both mini-hub connectors must be set to the same speed.
B.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected to the same Fabric.
C.The microcode disables the second mini-hub connector in case of Fabric connection.
D.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected through a Fabric to different hosts.
E.The LUN management functions must be used to share the original port by 2 hosts through the same mini-hub.
Answer: AC

8. A customer has an AMS500 consisting of:
Unit 00: RKM with six 300GB FC HDDs in position 00 to 05.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B

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Exam Code : HH0-330
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 58 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 58 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-330
Title : HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise

1. Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?
A./usr/bin/
B./usr/sbin
C./HORCM/
D./HORCM/usr/bin/
Answer: D

2. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is user selected.
B.The Command Device is system selected.
C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
Answer: AD

3. Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)
A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.
B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.
Answer: AD

4. A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.
What is the result of the pairresync operation?
A.The pairresync completes immediately.
B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.
C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.
D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol
Answer: B

5. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.
B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other applications.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.
Answer: BC

6. The CCI instance has failed to start.
What is the most likely cause?
A.The Command Device is labeled.
B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.
C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.
D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.
Answer: D

7. You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.
Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)
A.3390-3 LUN
B.LUSE LUN
C.OPEN-V LUN
D.OPEN-3 LUN
E.Virtual LVI/LUN
Answer: CDE

8. The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device.
Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows server?
A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20
B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20
C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20
D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20
Answer: A

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Exam Code : hh0-110
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 106 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 106 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-110
Title : Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations – Enterprise Exam

1. What is the maximum number of the backend paths in a Hitachi TagmaStore USP1100?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

2. Which HDS feature feature significantly improves the performance of an application with high I/Os?
A. LUSE
B. Quick IO
C. Bypass cache
D. Hitachi disk ALBs
Answer: A

3. HDS has two solutions in the enterprise content archival domain; Message Archival for Email and Message Archive for Compliance. Which three benefits will a customer gain from implementing these solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Mailboxes are never filled up.
B. Spam problems are resolved.
C. Legal penalties can be avoided.
D. Computer viruses are minimized.
E. Conceptual search within attachments.
Answer: ACE

4. A company is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to replicate between remote sites. What happens after they experience a large sustained burst of I/O to Universal Replicator volumes?
A. S-Vol remains consistent.
B. Cache fills with write I/O and forces the P-Vol to split.
C. Application latency increases due to replication activity.
D. Cache fills with write I/O and forces the P-Vol to suspend.
Answer: A

5. How does an administrator configure HiCommand Device Manager to support SCSI ports?
A. through the GUI as per normal configuration
B. through the CLI as SCSI has different requirments
C. HiCommand Device Manager does not support SCSI ports
D. HiCommand Device Manager automatically configures SCSI ports
Answer: C

6. Which two types of Message Archive Solutions are delivered by HDS? (Choose two.)
A. Message Archive for E-mail
B. Message Archive for Compliance
C. Message Archive for Compression
D. Message Archive for Disaster Recovery
Answer: AB

7. Which three operating systems are supported by Storage Navigator? (Choose three.)
A. HP-UX
B. IBM AIX
C. SUN Solaris
D. Novell Netware
E. Microsoft Windows XP
Answer: ACE

8. What is the maximum cached bandwidth of the Hitachi TagmaStore USP crossbar switch architecture?
A. 17GB/s
B. 34GB/s
C. 64GB/s
D. 68GB/s
Answer: D

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Exam Code : HH0-210
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-210
Title : HDS Certified Implmenter – Enterprise

1. You are connecting a Hitachi AMS2000 Family (AMS) system as external storage behind a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V. You are using one path to each controller on the AMS2000 system.
Which statement describes how to complete the configuration?
A. Enable intermittent error monitoring for both paths.
B. Set path mode to "Multi".
C. No special setting is needed.
D. Set the primary path to point to the AMS default controller.
Answer: C

2. Which ShadowImage operation is permitted when using Storage Navigator?
A. Manage pairs and manage consistency groups
B. Manage pairs but not manage consistency groups
C. Manage pairs only within consistency groups
D. Manage pairs in journal groups
Answer: B

3. A TrueCopy project has the following requirements: Copy from site_A (Host_A) to site_B (Host_B).
You have defined two instances (horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf) for the application and one Command Device (CMD_A on site_A and CMD_B on site_B.)
What are two valid combinations of distributing the instances and defining access to the Command Devices on the different sites? (Choose two.)
A. Host_A has access to CMD_A and CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf.
B. Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_A and runs horcm1.conf.
C. Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs horcm1.conf.
D. Host_A has access to CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs horcm1.conf.
Answer: AC

4. Which three statements describe the Service Processor (SVP) of the Hitachi Universal Storage Platform VM? (Choose three.)
A. The SVP does have a display and keyboard.
B. The SVP has access to user data stored on the system.
C. Connecting the SVP with a service center enables remote maintenance of the system.
D. The SVP collects performance data for all key components of the system.
E. The SVP enables the service representative to configure, maintain and upgrade the system.
Answer: CDE

5. After completing a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V installation or before upgrading the microcode, which tool must you use to ensure that the SVP can communicate with all components of the system?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. a network sniffer
D. diags LAN TEST
Answer: D

6. You have created a Storage Device List and some User Accounts within Storage Navigator. The SVP has since failed and must be replaced.
How can you create a backup of this information so it can be easily restored after the failed SVP is replaced?
A. Restore the ghost image available on the SVP.
B. Use HiSat to keep track of the information in a CSV format.
C. Ask the customer engineer to copy the source files from the SVP.
D. Use the download configuration function of the Storage Navigator control panel.
Answer: D

7. What is the purpose of the System Assurance Document?
A. to ensure accurate and complete record of pre-installation data
B. to guarantee that HDS equipment is insured during transportation
C. to inform a channel partner that equipment is available for shipment
D. to validate configuration changes for customers with a premium service contract
Answer: A

8. A customer is using a Hitachi Enterprise storage system with clustered servers in an active/passive relationship.
What must be done in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) to ensure that the status of inactive paths on both passive and active nodes is monitored regularly?
A. Switch on Auto failback.
B. Setup intermittent Error Monitoring.
C. Switch on Path Health Check.
D. Set the reservation level to 2.
Answer: C

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Exam Code : HH0-015
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 146 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 146 Q&As
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Exam Code : hh0-200
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As

Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As
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Exam : Hitachi HH0-200
Title : Certified Modular Integration Specialist Exam

1. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI. You have created LUNs for 12D+1P RAID group, and now you want to set up one spare disk. Given the following steps:
A.select Settings-> Logical Settings
B. select Settings-> Configuration Settings
C. select the Logical Settings tab
D.select Settings-> Logical Unit-> Set Spare Drive
E.select the disk that you want to set up as spare
F.select the Spare Drive tab
A. B, F, E
B. B, F, G
C. D, C, E
D. F, C, G
Answer: B

2. You have assembled and installed a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?subsystemRK and a RKA into a 19 inch rack. The system parameters have also been configured. The customer now needs to use port 0A in order to connect HP-UX with a LUN 0 and Solaris with a LUN 0 on the same port. Which two will enable this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. install the LUN SECURITY license
B. create two host groups on port 0A
C. install the LUN-MANAGEMENT license
D. configure port 0A to work in HP-UX mode
Answer: BC

3. Which statement is true about cache slots on the Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2GB per controller.
B. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 1GB or 2GB per controller.
C. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2 GB or 4GB per controller.
D. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 256MB or 512MB DIMMS for a maximum of 1 GB or 2 GB per controller.
Answer: B

4. You are using the Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI for the first time. You want to change to a different mode from default mode. What is the first thing you should do, before changing to a different mode?
A. go to Add-> Password and add the password
B. go to Add-> Change Mode and select the mode
C. go to Settings-> Password and register the password
D. go to Settings-> Change Properties and set the mode option to other modes
Answer: C

5. Ten LUNs must be recognized by the QLogic HBA on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server which is connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem. What is the system parameter that needs to be set up?
A. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Standard mode
B. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Host connection mode
C. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP2 mode in Host connection mode
D. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP mode in Host connection mode 2
Answer: D

6. Which component on the first RKA is used to connect to the RK in a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem?
A. PDB
B. ENC unit
C. Controller unit
D. AC Power Unit
Answer: B

7. A customer has Sun Netra Servers mounted on a Hitachi Data Systems?19 inch rack. You need to mount a RK and a RKA on the same rack. What is the amps/PS rating you need to use for both the RK and RKA together in order to ensure that the PDU is not overloaded when two power supplies are used on both the RK and the RKA and the source is 100V?
A. 3.20
B. 5.10
C. 6.30
D. 10.20
Answer: C

8. What is the operational humidity requirement at a site when installing a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. 5% to 90%
B. 8% to 80%
C. 10% to 75%
D. 10% to 90%
Answer: B

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Exam Code : HH0-400
Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems
Questions and Answers : 99 Q&As

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-400
Title : Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity

1. A customer’s regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.
How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

2. A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database’s data and log volumes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
Answer: CD

3. A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database’s data and log volumes.
Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A

4. Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)
D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network overhead
Answer: A

5. What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from merging.
D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage array.
Answer: AB

6. What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD

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